[CONTACT]

[ABOUT]

[POLICY]

There is supplementary section after

Found at: 0x1bi.net:70/textfiles/file?hamradio/adv-pool.ham

This is an ASCII text version of the Amateur Advanced Class question pool.
There is a supplementary section after the answers for this original section.  
and possible answers.  Direct any questions to skaggs@nsslc.nssl.uoknor.edu.
 
 
SUBELEMENT 4AA -- Rules and Regulations (6 questions)
 
n the 75 meter band?
     A.   3525 kHz to 3750 kHz and 3775 kHz to 4000 kHz
     B.   3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz
     C.   3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 3890 kHz
     D.   3525 kHz to 3775 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz
 
n the 40 meter band?
     A.   7000 kHz to 7300 kHz
     B.   7025 kHz to 7300 kHz
     C.   7025 kHz to 7350 kHz
     D.   7000 kHz to 7025 kHz
 
n the 20 meter band?
     A.   14000 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz
     B.   14025 kHz to 14175 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz
     C.   14000 kHz to 14025 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz
     D.   14025 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz
 
n the 15 meter band?
     A.   21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21250 kHz to 21450 kHz
     B.   21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21300 kHz to 21450 kHz
     C.   21025 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21225 kHz to 21450 kHz
     D.   21025 kHz to 21250 kHz and 21270 kHz to 21450 kHz
 
     A.   The retransmitting station is actuated by a received electrical
     B.   The retransmitting station is actuated by a telephone control link
     C.   The retransmitting station is actuated by a control operator
     D.   The retransmitting station is actuated by a call sign sent in Morse
code
 
of a received signal through electrical or electromechanical means, i.e.,
     A.   Simplex retransmission
     B.   Manual retransmission
     C.   Linear retransmission
     D.   Automatic retransmission
 
     A.   Only when the station licensee is present
     B.   Only when in repeater operation
     C.   Only when the control operator is present
     D.   Only during portable operation
 
     A.   A retransmitted signal that is not automatically controlled
     B.   A retransmitted signal that is automatically controlled
     C.   An OSCAR satellite transponder
     D.   The theory behind operational repeaters
 
     A.   An amateur radio station employing a phone patch to pass third
     B.   An apparatus for effecting remote control between a control point
and a remotely controlled station
     C.   Manual or simplex operation
     D.   Radio communications in which amateur radio station signals are
automatically retransmitted
 
     A.   A repeater containing control circuitry that limits access to the
     B.   A repeater containing no special control circuitry to limit access
to any licensed amateur
     C.   A repeater containing a transmitter and receiver on the same
frequency, a closed pair
     D.   A repeater shut down by order of an FCC District Engineer-in-Charge
 
operation?
     A.   28.0-28.7 MHz
     B.   29.0-29.7 MHz
     C.   29.5-29.7 MHz
     D.   28.5-29.7 MHz
 
     A.   Repeaters are authorized 1500 watts power output at all times
     B.   The percent modulation and emission type used
     C.   Polarization and direction of major lobes
     D.   Frequency and antenna height above average terrain
 
     A.   By measuring the output power of the final amplifier
     B.   By dividing the final amplifier power by the feed-line losses
     C.   By calculating the product of the transmitter power to the antenna
and the antenna gain
     D.   By measuring the power delivered to the antenna
 
     A.   A repeater that contains no special control circuitry to limit
access to any licensed amateur
     B.   A repeater available for use only by members of a club or repeater
     C.   A repeater that continuously transmits a signal to indicate that
t is available for use
     D.   A repeater whose frequency pair has been properly coordinated
 
operation?
     A.   51.00-52.00 MHz
     B.   50.25-52.00 MHz
     C.   52.00-53.00 MHz
     D.   52.00-54.00 MHz
 
operation?
     A.   144.50-145.50 and 146-148.00 MHz
     B.   144.50-148.00 MHz
     C.   144.75-146.00 and 146-148.00 MHz
     D.   146.00-148.00 MHz
 
operation?
     A.   220.25-225.00 MHz
     B.   220.50-225.00 MHz
     C.   221.00-225.00 MHz
     D.   223.00-225.00 MHz
 
operation?
     A.   420.0-431, 433-435 and 438-450 MHz
     B.   420.5-440 and 445-450 MHz
     C.   420.5-435 and 438-450 MHz
     D.   420.5-433, 435-438 and 439-450 MHz
 
     A.   Radio communication from a location more than 50 miles from that
ndicated on the station license for a period of more than three months
     B.   Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above
     C.   Remote control of model airplanes or boats using frequencies above
     D.   Radio communications for remotely controlling other amateur radio
n a system of stations or for intercommunicating with other amateur stations
n a system of stations
 
     A.   Remote control of other amateur stations, automatically relaying
ntercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of amateur radio
     B.   Remote control of model craft and vehicles, automatically relaying
ntercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of stations
     C.   Remote control of other amateur stations and of model craft and
vehicles, manually relaying signals of other amateur stations in a system of
amateur radio stations
     D.   Operation for more than three months at a location more than 50
miles from the location listed on the station license, automatically relaying
ntercommunicating with other amateur stations in a system of amateur radio
 
     A.   Stations in the public safety service
     B.   Other amateur stations in the system of amateur stations shown on
the system network diagram
     C.   Amateur radio stations in space satellite operation
     D.   Amateur radio stations other than those under manual control
 
     A.   All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and
     B.   All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and
     C.   All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and
     D.   All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and
 
     A.   Amateur communications conducted from a specific geographical
location other than that shown on the station license
     B.   Automatic operation of a station from a control point located
elsewhere than at the station transmitter
     C.   An amateur radio station operating under automatic control
     D.   Manual operation of a station from a control point located
elsewhere than at the station transmitter
 
     A.   Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 3
minutes if the control link malfunctions
     B.   Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 4
minutes if the control link malfunctions
     C.   Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 5
minutes if the control link malfunctions
     D.   Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more than 10
minutes if the control link malfunctions
 
long may the station continue to transmit?
     A.   5 seconds
     B.   10 minutes
     C.   3 minutes
     D.   5 minutes
 
     A.   All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and
     B.   All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and
     C.   All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and
     D.   All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and
 
n repeater operation?
     A.   All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433 MHz and
     B.   All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432 MHz and
     C.   All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432 MHz and
     D.   All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433 MHz and
 
     A.   Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is the use of devices
and procedures for control so that a control operator does not have to be
     B.   Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is radio
communication for remotely controlling another amateur radio station
     C.   Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is remotely
controlling a station such that a control operator does not have to be
     D.   Automatic control of an Amateur Radio station is the use of a
control link between a control point and a remotely controlled station
 
automatic control differ from one under local control?
     A.   Under local control, there is no control operator
     B.   Under automatic control, a control operator is not required to be
     C.   Under automatic control, there is no control operator
     D.   Under local control, a control operator is not required to be
 
     A.   Stations without a control operator
     B.   Stations in repeater operation
     C.   Stations that do not have transmission-limiting timing devices
     D.   Stations that transmit codes and cipher groups, as defined in FCC
 
     A.   The automatic control devices of an unattended station
     B.   An automatically operated link
     C.   The remote control apparatus between a control point and a remotely
controlled station
     D.   A transmission-limiting timing device
 
control point and a remotely controlled station?
     A.   Tone link
     B.   Wire control
     C.   Remote control
     D.   Control link
 
     A.   As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram showing each station in a
     B.   As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram describing a computer
nterface to an amateur radio station
     C.   As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram demonstrating how a mobile
amateur radio station used on board a ship or aircraft is electrically
     D.   As defined in Section 97.3, a diagram showing the stages of an
amateur transmitter or external radio frequency power amplifier
 
     A.   A control link diagram
     B.   A system network diagram
     C.   A radio network diagram
     D.   A control point diagram
 
operation transmit its identification?
     A.   At a level sufficient to completely block the repeated transmission
     B.   At a level low enough to cause no interference to users of the
     C.   At a level sufficient to be intelligible through the repeated
transmission
     D.   At a 150% modulation level, as required by Section 97.84
 
operation transmit its identification?
     A.   At a level sufficient to completely block the repeated transmission
     B.   At a level low enough to cause no interference to users of the
     C.   At a level sufficient to be intelligible through the repeated
transmission
     D.   At a 150% modulation level, as required by Section 97.84
 
     A.   The letters "AUX" must follow the station call sign when
dentifying by radiotelegraphy
     B.   The letters "RPTR" must follow the station call sign when
dentifying by radiotelegraphy
     C.   The word "auxiliary" must be added after the call sign when
dentifying by radiotelephony
     D.   The word "repeater" must be added after the call sign when
dentifying by radiotelephony
 
     A.   The word "auxiliary" must be transmitted at the end of the call
     B.   The letters "RPTR" must precede the station call sign when
dentifying by radiotelegraphy
     C.   The letters "AUX" must precede the station call sign when
dentifying by radiotelegraphy
     D.   The words "remote control" must be added after the call sign when
dentifying by radiotelephony
 
amateur station antenna structure?
     A.   When the antenna structure violates local building codes
     B.   When the height above ground will exceed 200 feet
     C.   When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be
     D.   When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway will be
 
constructing or altering an antenna structure more than 200 feet high?
     A.   An Environmental Impact Statement
     B.   A Special Temporary Authorization
     C.   Prior approval
     D.   An effective radiated power statement
 
     A.   By an aerial survey
     B.   The height of the center of radiation of the antenna above an
averaged value of the elevation above sea level for surrounding terrain
     C.   The height of the antenna above the highest value of the elevation
above sea level for surrounding terrain
     D.   By measuring the highest point of the antenna above the lowest
value of surrounding terrain
 
the maximum ERP permitted for an antenna height above average terrain of more
than 1050 feet?
     A.   100 watts
     B.   200 watts
     C.   400 watts
     D.   800 watts
 
     A.   Third party traffic that involves material compensation
     B.   Any transmission that facilitates the regular business or
commercial affairs of any party
     C.   Transmissions ensuring safety on a highway, such as calling a
commercial tow truck service
     D.   An autopatch using a commercial telephone system
 
     A.   Duplex autopatch
     B.   Third party traffic that involves compensation
     C.   Business communications
     D.   Simplex autopatch
 
transmitted by an amateur station?
     A.   When the total remuneration does not exceed $25
     B.   When the control operator is employed by the FCC
     C.   When transmitting international third party traffic
     D.   During an emergency
 
amateur station in a foreign country?
     A.   Call sign and signal reports
     B.   Emergency messages
     C.   Business messages
     D.   Personal remarks
 
     A.   Emergency communications only
     B.   Technical or personal messages only
     C.   Business communications only
     D.   Call sign and signal reports only
 
for using their stations to send messages?
     A.   When employed by the FCC
     B.   When passing emergency traffic
     C.   Under no circumstances
     D.   When passing international third party traffic
 
n repeater operation accept remuneration for providing communication
     A.   When the repeater is operating under portable power
     B.   When the repeater is under local control
     C.   During Red Cross or other emergency service drills
     D.   Under no circumstances
 
     A.   The examiner
     B.   The FCC
     C.   The VEC
     D.   Any Novice licensee
 
     A.   The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international
Morse code at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute
     B.   The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international
Morse code at a rate of not less than 5 words per minute
     C.   The applicant's ability to send and receive text in international
Morse code at a rate of not less than 20 words per minute
     D.   The applicant's ability to send text in international Morse code
at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute
 
examination?
     A.   The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the
question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN
     B.   The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the
open and closed parenthesis, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN
     C.   The letters A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, the
     D.   A through Z, 0 through 9, the period, the comma, and the question
mark
 
     A.   The FCC
     B.   Any Novice licensee
     C.   The test examiner
     D.   The VEC
 
Element 2 written examination?
     A.   From FCC PR Bulletin 1035C
     B.   From FCC PR Bulletin 1035B
     C.   From FCC PR Bulletin 1035D
     D.   From FCC PR Bulletin 1035A
 
license?
     A.   An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra
class license and at least 18 years old
     B.   An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced
or Extra class license and at least 18 years old
     C.   An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or Extra
class license and at least 16 years old
     D.   An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General, Advanced
or Extra class license and at least 16 years old
 
examination retain the test papers?
     A.   Ten years from the date of the examination
     B.   One year from the date of the examination
     C.   Twelve years from the date of the examination
     D.   Until the license is issued
 
     A.   With the examinee's station records
     B.   With the VEC that issued the papers
     C.   With the volunteer examiner's station records
     D.   With the Volunteer Examiner Team Chief's station records
 
the Novice operator license?
     A.   84 percent, minimum
     B.   74 percent, minimum
     C.   70 percent, minimum
     D.   80 percent, minimum
 
answers constitute a passing score?
     A.   10 or more
     B.   12 or more
     C.   14 or more
     D.   15 or more
 
     A.   2
     B.   5
     C.   8
     D.   10
 
     A.   16 years old
     B.   21 years old
     C.   18 years old
     D.   13 years old
 
for their services?
     A.   Under no circumstances
     B.   When out-of-pocket expenses exceed $25
     C.   The volunteer examiner may be compensated when traveling over 25
miles to the test site
     D.   Only when there are more than 20 applicants attending the
examination session
 
license or amateur operator license has ever been revoked or suspended be a
volunteer examiner?
     A.   Under no circumstances
     B.   Only if five or more years have elapsed since the revocation or
     C.   Only if 3 or more years have elapsed since the revocation of
     D.   Only after review and subsequent approval by the VEC
 
engaged in the distribution of equipment used in connection with amateur
     A.   If the employee is employed in the amateur radio sales part of the
company
     B.   If the employee does not normally communicate with the
manufacturing or distribution part of the company
     C.   If the employee serves as a volunteer examiner for his/her
customers
     D.   If the employee does not normally communicate with the benefits and
 
     A.   The examiner's station license may be suspended for a period not
to exceed 3 months
     B.   A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was
committed
     C.   Possible revocation of his/her amateur radio station license
     D.   The examiner may be restricted to giving only Novice class exams
 
considerations?
     A.   The examiner's station license may be suspended for a period not
to exceed 3 months
     B.   A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was
committed
     C.   The examiner may be restricted to administering only Novice class
license exams
     D.   Possible revocation of his/her amateur radio station license
 
SUBELEMENT 4AB -- Operating Procedures (1 question)
 
 
     A.   The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture
     B.   The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television
     C.   The transmission of video by amateur television
     D.   The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper
 
transmitted by an amateur station?
     A.   The modern standard is 240 lines per minute
     B.   The modern standard is 50 lines per minute
     C.   The modern standard is 150 lines per second
     D.   The modern standard is 60 lines per second
 
transmitted by an amateur station?
     A.   Approximately 6 minutes per frame at 240 lpm
     B.   Approximately 3.3 minutes per frame at 240 lpm
     C.   Approximately 6 seconds per frame at 240 lpm
     D.   1/60 second per frame at 240 lpm
 
     A.   Television
     B.   Facsimile
     C.   Xerography
     D.   ACSSB
 
converted into voltage variations?
     A.   With an LED
     B.   With a Hall-effect transistor
     C.   With a photodetector
     D.   With an optoisolator
 
     A.   The transmission of Baudot or ASCII signals by radio
     B.   The transmission of pictures for permanent display on paper
     C.   The transmission of moving pictures by radio
     D.   The transmission of still pictures by radio
 
     A.   20 lines per minute
     B.   15 lines per second
     C.   4 lines per minute
     D.   240 lines per minute
 
television picture?
     A.   30
     B.   60
     C.   120
     D.   180
 
     A.   2300 Hz
     B.   2000 Hz
     C.   1500 Hz
     D.   120 Hz
 
     A.   120 Hz
     B.   1500 Hz
     C.   2000 Hz
     D.   2300 Hz
 
SUBELEMENT 4AC -- Radio Wave Propagation (2 questions)
 
 
     A.   Variations in E-layer height caused by sunspot variations
     B.   A brief increase in VHF signal levels from meteor trails at E-layer
     C.   Patches of dense ionization at E-layer height
     D.   Partial tropospheric ducting at E-layer height
 
     A.   Auroral propagation
     B.   Ducting
     C.   Scatter
     D.   Sporadic-E
 
     A.   The equatorial regions
     B.   The arctic regions
     C.   The northern hemisphere
     D.   The polar regions
 
of sporadic-E most often observed?
     A.   2 meters
     B.   6 meters
     C.   20 meters
     D.   160 meters
 
     A.   Wind shear
     B.   Sunspots
     C.   Temperature inversions
     D.   Meteors
 
     A.   A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the
     B.   A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave
components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station
     C.   A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the
onosphere, as experienced at the receiving station
     D.   A fading effect caused by time differences between the receiving
and transmitting stations
 
     A.   Faraday rotation
     B.   Diversity reception
     C.   Selective fading
     D.   Phase shift
 
     A.   Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station
     B.   Large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at
the receiving station
     C.   Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations
     D.   Phase differences between radio wave components of the same
transmission, as experienced at the receiving station
 
     A.   CW and SSB
     B.   FM and double sideband AM
     C.   SSB and AMTOR
     D.   SSTV and CW
 
fading?
     A.   It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths
     B.   It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths
     C.   It is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths
     D.   The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect
 
     A.   The readability of SSB signals increases
     B.   FM communications are clearer
     C.   CW signals have a clearer tone
     D.   CW signals have a fluttery tone
 
     A.   A high sunspot level
     B.   A low sunspot level
     C.   The emission of charged particles from the sun
     D.   Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
 
antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation?
     A.   South
     B.   North
     C.   East
     D.   West
 
     A.   At F-layer height
     B.   In the equatorial band
     C.   At D-layer height
     D.   At E-layer height
 
     A.   CW and SSB
     B.   SSB and FM
     C.   FM and CW
     D.   RTTY and AM
 
     A.   E-layer skip
     B.   D-layer skip
     C.   Auroral skip
     D.   Radio waves may be bent
 
     A.   By approximately 1/3 the distance
     B.   By approximately twice the distance
     C.   By approximately one-half the distance
     D.   By approximately four times the distance
 
     A.   Approximately 1000 miles
     B.   Approximately 500 miles
     C.   Approximately 1500 miles
     D.   Approximately 2000 miles
 
     A.   D-layer absorption
     B.   Faraday rotation
     C.   Tropospheric ducting
     D.   Moonbounce
 
other particles?
     A.   Kinetic energy is given up by the radio wave
     B.   Kinetic energy is gained by the radio wave
     C.   Aurora is created
     D.   Nothing happens since radio waves have no physical substance
 
SUBELEMENT 4AD -- Amateur Radio Practice (4 questions)
 
 
     A.   A net frequency
     B.   A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency
     C.   A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz
     D.   A device used to generate wideband random frequencies
 
     A.   A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency
     B.   A sweep generator
     C.   A broadband white noise generator
     D.   A device used to generate wideband random frequencies
 
     A.   In conjunction with a grid-dip meter
     B.   To provide reference points on a receiver dial
     C.   As the basic frequency element of a transmitter
     D.   To directly measure wavelength
 
     A.   A frequency measuring device
     B.   A frequency marker generator
     C.   A device that determines whether or not a given frequency is in use
before automatic transmissions are made
     D.   A broadband white noise generator
 
     A.   To provide reference points on an analog receiver dial
     B.   To generate a frequency standard
     C.   To measure the deviation in an FM transmitter
     D.   To measure frequency
 
of +/-1.0 ppm?
     A.   165.2 Hz
     B.   14.652 kHz
     C.   146.52 Hz
     D.   1.4652 MHz
 
of +/-0.1 ppm?
     A.   14.652 Hz
     B.   0.1 MHz
     C.   1.4652 Hz
     D.   1.4652 kHz
 
of +/-10 ppm?
     A.   146.52 Hz
     B.   10 Hz
     C.   146.52 kHz
     D.   1465.20 Hz
 
of +/-1.0 ppm?
     A.   43.21 MHz
     B.   10 Hz
     C.   1.0 MHz
     D.   432.1 Hz
 
of +/-0.1 ppm?
     A.   43.21 Hz
     B.   0.1 MHz
     C.   432.1 Hz
     D.   0.2 MHz
 
of +/-10 ppm?
     A.   10 MHz
     B.   10 Hz
     C.   4321 Hz
     D.   432.1 Hz
 
     A.   A field strength meter
     B.   An SWR meter
     C.   A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current
     D.   A marker generator
 
     A.   It can measure signal strength accurately
     B.   It can measure frequency accurately
     C.   It can measure transmitter output power accurately
     D.   It can give an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit
 
     A.   Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize the detector
coil
     B.   Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered
current
     C.   Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current
     D.   Harmonics of the oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit
Q
 
     A.   To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure
     B.   To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of
modulation
     C.   To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance
     D.   To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a
tuned circuit resonant frequency
 
being checked?
     A.   Resistive and inductive
     B.   Inductive and capacitive
     C.   Resistive and capacitive
     D.   Strong field
 
checked?
     A.   As loosely as possible, for best accuracy
     B.   As tightly as possible, for best accuracy
     C.   First loose, then tight, for best accuracy
     D.   With a soldered jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to
be checked, for best accuracy
 
tuned circuit being checked?
     A.   Harmonics are generated
     B.   A less accurate reading results
     C.   Cross modulation occurs
     D.   Intermodulation distortion occurs
 
an oscilloscope?
     A.   Sweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth
     B.   Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage
     C.   Sweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments
     D.   Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency
ncrements
 
a D'Arsonval movement type meter?
     A.   Calibration, coil impedance and meter size
     B.   Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current
     C.   Coil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement mass
     D.   Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance
 
a frequency counter?
     A.   Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and time base
     B.   Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability
     C.   Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time
base stability
     D.   Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and
temperature coefficient of the logic
 
     A.   By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the time
base
     B.   By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing the
vertical sweep rate
     C.   By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifier
frequency response
     D.   By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier
frequency response
 
     A.   By using slower digital logic
     B.   By improving the accuracy of the frequency response
     C.   By increasing the accuracy of the time base
     D.   By using faster digital logic
 
transmitters in close proximity mix together in one or both of their final
amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the
original transmissions are generated?
     A.   Amplifier desensitization
     B.   Neutralization
     C.   Adjacent channel interference
     D.   Intermodulation interference
 
occur?
     A.   When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase
from airplanes passing overhead
     B.   When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both
of their final amplifiers
     C.   When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in
one or both of their final amplifiers
     D.   When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from
airplanes passing overhead
 
     A.   By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power
     B.   By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the
feed line to the transmitter and duplexer
     C.   By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line
     D.   By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line
 
transmitter?
     A.   Reduced amplifier efficiency
     B.   Increased intelligibility
     C.   Sideband inversion
     D.   Distortion
 
amplifier design?
     A.   By using a push-push amplifier
     B.   By using a push-pull amplifier
     C.   By operating class C
     D.   By operating class AB
 
     A.   A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low
     B.   A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high
     C.   A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong signal on
a nearby frequency
     D.   A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain control is
turned down
 
by the signals of a nearby station transmitting in the same frequency band?
     A.   Desensitizing
     B.   Quieting
     C.   Cross modulation interference
     D.   Squelch gain rollback
 
caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel signals?
     A.   Intermodulation distortion
     B.   Quieting
     C.   Desensitizing
     D.   Overloading
 
     A.   Audio gain adjusted too low
     B.   Squelch gain adjusted too high
     C.   The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency
     D.   Squelch gain adjusted too low
 
     A.   Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and receiver
     B.   Increase the transmitter audio gain
     C.   Decrease the receiver squelch gain
     D.   Increase the receiver bandwidth
 
     A.   Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type
     B.   Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp
     C.   Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal
     D.   Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the
 
a very strong station are superimposed on other signals being received?
     A.   Intermodulation distortion
     B.   Cross-modulation interference
     C.   Receiver quieting
     D.   Capture effect
 
     A.   By installing a filter at the receiver
     B.   By using a better antenna
     C.   By increasing the receiver's RF gain while decreasing the AF gain
     D.   By adjusting the pass-band tuning
 
     A.   A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals
     B.   Receiver quieting
     C.   The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal
     D.   Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier
 
     A.   All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver
     B.   All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver
     C.   The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal
     D.   The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal
 
     A.   Desensitization
     B.   Cross-modulation interference
     C.   Capture effect
     D.   Frequency discrimination
 
     A.   FM
     B.   SSB
     C.   AM
     D.   CW
 
SUBELEMENT 4AE -- Electrical Principles (10 questions)
 
 
     A.   Wattless, non-productive power
     B.   Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
     C.   Power lost because of capacitor leakage
     D.   Power consumed in circuit Q
 
     A.   Effective power
     B.   True power
     C.   Peak envelope power
     D.   Reactive power
 
electrostatic field?
     A.   Potential energy
     B.   Amperes-joules
     C.   Joules-coulombs
     D.   Kinetic energy
 
n series can often be larger than the voltages applied to them?
     A.   Capacitance
     B.   Resonance
     C.   Conductance
     D.   Resistance
 
     A.   The highest frequency that will pass current
     B.   The lowest frequency that will pass current
     C.   The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive
     D.   The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum
 
     A.   When the power factor is at a minimum
     B.   When inductive and capacitive reactances are equal
     C.   When the square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive
     D.   When the square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive
 
     A.   Reactive quiescence
     B.   High Q
     C.   Reactive equilibrium
     D.   Resonance
 
circuit at resonance?
     A.   High, as compared to the circuit resistance
     B.   Approximately equal to the circuit resistance
     C.   Approximately equal to XL
     D.   Approximately equal to XC
 
circuit at resonance?
     A.   High, as compared to the circuit resistance
     B.   Approximately equal to XL
     C.   Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
     D.   Approximately equal to XC
 
at resonance?
     A.   It is at a minimum
     B.   It is at a maximum
     C.   It is dc
     D.   It is zero
 
circuit at resonance?
     A.   The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a minimum
     B.   The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a maximum
     C.   The current circulating in the parallel elements is dc
     D.   The current circulating in the parallel elements is zero
 
     A.   The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the
conductor, close to the surface, as frequency increases
     B.   The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of the
conductor, close to the surface, as frequency decreases
     C.   The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the
conductor increase the impedance
     D.   The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the
conductor decrease the impedance
 
along the surface of the conductor?
     A.   Layer effect
     B.   Seeburg Effect
     C.   Skin effect
     D.   Resonance
 
     A.   Along the surface
     B.   In the center of the conductor
     C.   In the magnetic field around the conductor
     D.   In the electromagnetic field in the conductor center
 
thousandths-of-an-inch of the conductor's surface?
     A.   Because of skin effect
     B.   Because the RF resistance of the conductor is much less than the
DC resistance
     C.   Because of heating of the metal at the conductor's interior
     D.   Because of the ac-resistance of the conductor's self inductance
 
DC?
     A.   Because the insulation conducts current at radio frequencies
     B.   Because of the Heisenburg Effect
     C.   Because of skin effect
     D.   Because conductors are non-linear devices
 
     A.   Current flow through space around a permanent magnet
     B.   A force set up when current flows through a conductor
     C.   The force between the plates of a charged capacitor
     D.   The force that drives current through a resistor
 
s flowing?
     A.   In the same direction as the current
     B.   In a direction opposite to the current flow
     C.   In all directions; omnidirectional
     D.   In a direction determined by the left hand rule
 
field?
     A.   A battery
     B.   A transformer
     C.   A capacitor
     D.   An inductor
 
n an electrostatic field?
     A.   Coulombs
     B.   Joules
     C.   Watts
     D.   Volts
 
     A.   Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and distance between the
     B.   Area of the plates, distance between the plates and the dielectric
constant of the material between the plates
     C.   Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and the dielectric
constant of the material between the plates
     D.   Area of the plates, amount of charge on the plates and the
 
     A.   Approximately 1
     B.   Approximately 2
     C.   Approximately 4
     D.   Approximately 0
 
     A.   The resistance divided by the current
     B.   The ratio of the current to the resistance
     C.   The diameter of the conductor
     D.   The amount of current
 
s 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
     A.   79.6 MHz
     B.   1.78 MHz
     C.   3.56 MHz
     D.   7.96 MHz
 
s 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?
     A.   1.99 kHz
     B.   1.78 MHz
     C.   1.99 MHz
     D.   1.78 kHz
 
s 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
     A.   3.18 MHz
     B.   3.18 kHz
     C.   7.12 MHz
     D.   7.12 kHz
 
s 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
     A.   10.1 MHz
     B.   63.7 MHz
     C.   10.1 kHz
     D.   63.7 kHz
 
s 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
     A.   13.1 MHz
     B.   14.5 MHz
     C.   14.5 kHz
     D.   13.1 kHz
 
s 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads?
     A.   19.9 kHz
     B.   17.8 kHz
     C.   19.9 MHz
     D.   17.8 MHz
 
s 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads?
     A.   2.84 MHz
     B.   28.4 MHz
     C.   21.3 MHz
     D.   2.13 MHz
 
s 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?
     A.   23.7 MHz
     B.   23.7 kHz
     C.   35.4 kHz
     D.   35.4 MHz
 
s 4 microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads?
     A.   28.1 kHz
     B.   28.1 MHz
     C.   49.7 MHz
     D.   49.7 kHz
 
s 1 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads?
     A.   17.7 MHz
     B.   17.7 kHz
     C.   53.1 MHz
     D.   53.1 kHz
 
s 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads?
     A.   50.3 MHz
     B.   15.9 MHz
     C.   15.9 kHz
     D.   50.3 kHz
 
s 2 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?
     A.   29.1 kHz
     B.   29.1 MHz
     C.   5.31 MHz
     D.   5.31 kHz
 
s 5 microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads?
     A.   23.7 kHz
     B.   3.54 kHz
     C.   23.7 MHz
     D.   3.54 MHz
 
s 2 microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads?
     A.   2.65 kHz
     B.   20.5 kHz
     C.   2.65 MHz
     D.   20.5 MHz
 
s 15 microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads?
     A.   18.4 MHz
     B.   2.12 MHz
     C.   18.4 kHz
     D.   2.12 kHz
 
s 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
     A.   1.33 kHz
     B.   14.5 MHz
     C.   1.33 MHz
     D.   14.5 kHz
 
s 40 microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads?
     A.   6.63 MHz
     B.   6.63 kHz
     C.   10.3 MHz
     D.   10.3 kHz
 
s 10 microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads?
     A.   3.18 MHz
     B.   3.18 kHz
     C.   7.12 kHz
     D.   7.12 MHz
 
s 200 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
     A.   3.56 MHz
     B.   7.96 kHz
     C.   3.56 kHz
     D.   7.96 MHz
 
s 90 microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads?
     A.   1.77 MHz
     B.   1.68 MHz
     C.   1.77 kHz
     D.   1.68 kHz
 
     A.   18.9 kHz
     B.   1.89 kHz
     C.   189 Hz
     D.   58.7 kHz
 
     A.   58.7 kHz
     B.   606 kHz
     C.   47.3 kHz
     D.   16.5 kHz
 
     A.   211 kHz
     B.   16.5 kHz
     C.   47.3 kHz
     D.   21.1 kHz
 
     A.   21.1 kHz
     B.   27.9 kHz
     C.   17 kHz
     D.   58.7 kHz
 
     A.   95 kHz
     B.   10.5 kHz
     C.   10.5 MHz
     D.   17 kHz
 
     A.   4.49 kHz
     B.   44.9 kHz
     C.   22.3 kHz
     D.   222.6 kHz
 
     A.   4.49 kHz
     B.   44.9 kHz
     C.   22.3 kHz
     D.   223 kHz
 
     A.   92.8 kHz
     B.   10.8 kHz
     C.   22.3 kHz
     D.   44.9 kHz
 
     A.   22.3 kHz
     B.   76.2 kHz
     C.   31.4 kHz
     D.   10.8 kHz
 
     A.   22.3 kHz
     B.   10.8 kHz
     C.   13.1 kHz
     D.   76.2 kHz
 
frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 2.7 microhenrys and the resistance
s 18,000 ohms?
     A.   75.1
     B.   7.51
     C.   71.5
     D.   0.013
 
frequency is 14.128 MHz, the inductance is 4.7 microhenrys and the resistance
s 18,000 ohms?
     A.   4.31
     B.   43.1
     C.   13.3
     D.   0.023
 
frequency is 4.468 MHz, the inductance is 47 microhenrys and the resistance
s 180 ohms?
     A.   0.00735
     B.   7.35
     C.   0.136
     D.   13.3
 
frequency is 14.225 MHz, the inductance is 3.5 microhenrys and the resistance
s 10,000 ohms?
     A.   7.35
     B.   0.0319
     C.   71.5
     D.   31.9
 
frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 8.2 microhenrys and the resistance
s 1,000 ohms?
     A.   36.8
     B.   0.273
     C.   0.368
     D.   2.73
 
frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 10.1 microhenrys and the resistance
s 100 ohms?
     A.   0.221
     B.   4.52
     C.   0.00452
     D.   22.1
 
frequency is 7.125 MHz, the inductance is 12.6 microhenrys and the resistance
s 22,000 ohms?
     A.   22.1
     B.   39
     C.   25.6
     D.   0.0256
 
frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 3 microhenrys and the resistance
s 2,200 ohms?
     A.   0.031
     B.   32.2
     C.   31.1
     D.   25.6
 
frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 42 microhenrys and the resistance
s 220 ohms?
     A.   23
     B.   0.00435
     C.   4.35
     D.   0.23
 
frequency is 3.625 MHz, the inductance is 43 microhenrys and the resistance
s 1,800 ohms?
     A.   1.84
     B.   0.543
     C.   54.3
     D.   23
 
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
     A.   36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     B.   53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     C.   36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D.   53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
     A.   14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     B.   14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C.   76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D.   76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 500 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and
     A.   68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     B.   14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C.   14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D.   68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
     A.   76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     B.   14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C.   14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D.   76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
     A.   76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     B.   14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C.   76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     D.   14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
     A.   76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     B.   14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     C.   14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     D.   76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
     A.   14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     B.   14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C.   76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     D.   76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
 
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 250 ohms, R is 1000 ohms, and
     A.   81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     B.   81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     C.   14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D.   14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
     A.   76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     B.   76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     C.   14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D.   14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 
through the circuit in Figure 4AE-6, when Xc is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and
     A.   36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current
     B.   53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     C.   36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
     D.   53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current
 
less than the product of the magnitudes of the AC voltage and current?
     A.   Because there is a phase angle that is greater than zero between
the current and voltage
     B.   Because there are only resistances in the circuit
     C.   Because there are no reactances in the circuit
     D.   Because there is a phase angle that is equal to zero between the
current and voltage
 
the true power be determined?
     A.   By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
     B.   By subtracting the apparent power from the power factor
     C.   By dividing the apparent power by the power factor
     D.   By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current
 
     A.   1.414
     B.   0.866
     C.   0.5
     D.   1.73
 
     A.   0.866
     B.   1.0
     C.   0.5
     D.   0.707
 
     A.   1.73
     B.   0.5
     C.   0.866
     D.   0.577
 
     A.   400 watts
     B.   80 watts
     C.   2000 watts
     D.   50 watts
 
     A.   200 watts
     B.   1000 watts
     C.   1600 watts
     D.   600 watts
 
circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
     A.   158 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     B.   39.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     C.   251 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     D.   69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
 
circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?
     A.   300 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     B.   315 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     C.   31.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     D.   69.9 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
 
circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
     A.   600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     B.   75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     C.   18.75 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     D.   150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
 
     A.   37.6 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     B.   237 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     C.   150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     D.   23.7 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
 
and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?
     A.   631 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     B.   400 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     C.   25 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     D.   100 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
 
and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
     A.   800 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     B.   126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     C.   12.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     D.   1260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
 
and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
     A.   601 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     B.   240 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     C.   60 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     D.   379 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
 
and circulator loss, and 7 dB antenna gain?
     A.   946 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     B.   37.5 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     C.   600 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     D.   150 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
 
and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
     A.   317 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     B.   2000 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     C.   126 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     D.   260 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
 
and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
     A.   252 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     B.   63.2 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     C.   632 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
     D.   159 watts, assuming the antenna gain is referenced to a half-wave
 
current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8
kilohms?
     A.   R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
     B.   R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
     C.   R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
     D.   R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
 
current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is
     A.   R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
     B.   R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
     C.   R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 volts
     D.   R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
 
current characteristics as when V1 is 8-volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16
kilohms?
     A.   R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
     B.   R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
     C.   R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 volts
     D.   R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
 
current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is
     A.   R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
     B.   R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
     C.   R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
     D.   R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
 
current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is
     A.   R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
     B.   R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
     C.   R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts
     D.   R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts
 
current characteristics as when V1 is 10-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is
     A.   R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
     B.   R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
     C.   R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 volts
     D.   R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
 
current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is
     A.   R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
     B.   R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
     C.   R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
     D.   R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
 
current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is
     A.   R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
     B.   R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
     C.   R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
     D.   R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
 
current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is
     A.   R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
     B.   R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
     C.   R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
     D.   R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
 
current characteristics as when V1 is 12-volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is
     A.   R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
     B.   R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
     C.   R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
     D.   R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
 
SUBELEMENT 4AF -- Circuit Components (6 questions)
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
               A    B    C    D
 
     A.   Junction and point contact
     B.   Electrolytic and junction
     C.   Electrolytic and point contact
     D.   Vacuum and point contact
 
 
 
 
 
 
               A    B    C    D
 
     A.   Hot carrier and tunnel
     B.   Varactor and rectifying
     C.   Voltage regulator and voltage reference
     D.   Forward and reversed biased
 
     A.   A constant current under conditions of varying voltage
     B.   A constant voltage under conditions of varying current
     C.   A negative resistance region
     D.   An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
 
     A.   2.4 volts to 200 volts
     B.   1.2 volts to 7 volts
     C.   3 volts to 2000 volts
     D.   1.2 volts to 5.6 volts
 
 
 
 
 
 
               A    B    C    D
 
     A.   A high forward resistance
     B.   A very high PIV
     C.   A negative resistance region
     D.   A high forward current rating
 
oscillation?
     A.   Point contact diodes
     B.   Zener diodes
     C.   Tunnel diodes
     D.   Junction diodes
 
 
 
 
 
 
               A    B    C    D
 
voltage applied to its terminals varies?
     A.   A varactor diode
     B.   A tunnel diode
     C.   A silicon-controlled rectifier
     D.   A Zener diode
 
     A.   It has a constant voltage under conditions of varying current
     B.   Its internal capacitance varies with the applied voltage
     C.   It has a negative resistance region
     D.   It has a very high PIV
 
     A.   As a constant current source
     B.   As a constant voltage source
     C.   As a voltage controlled inductance
     D.   As a voltage controlled capacitance
 
     A.   As balanced mixers in SSB generation
     B.   As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
     C.   As a constant voltage reference in a power supply
     D.   As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors
 
     A.   The peak inverse voltage
     B.   The junction temperature
     C.   The forward voltage
     D.   The back EMF
 
     A.   Maximum forward current and capacitance
     B.   Maximum reverse current and PIV
     C.   Maximum reverse current and capacitance
     D.   Maximum forward current and PIV
 
     A.   As a constant current source
     B.   As a constant voltage source
     C.   As an RF detector
     D.   As a high voltage rectifier
 
     A.   Zener diode
     B.   Varactor diode
     C.   Junction diode
     D.   Point contact diode
 
     A.   As a constant current source
     B.   As a constant voltage source
     C.   As an RF switch
     D.   As a high voltage rectifier
 
and various types of phase shifting devices?
     A.   Tunnel diodes
     B.   Varactor diodes
     C.   PIN diodes
     D.   Junction diodes
 
 
 
 
 
 
               A    B    C    D
 
 
 
 
 
 
               A    B    C    D
 
     A.   Cathode, plate and grid
     B.   Base, collector and emitter
     C.   Gate, source and sink
     D.   Input, output and ground
 
transistors?
     A.   The change of collector current with respect to base current
     B.   The change of base current with respect to collector current
     C.   The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
     D.   The change of collector current with respect to gate current
 
current to a change in emitter current in a bipolar transistor?
     A.   Gamma
     B.   Epsilon
     C.   Alpha
     D.   Beta
 
     A.   The change of collector current with respect to base current
     B.   The change of base current with respect to emitter current
     C.   The change of collector current with respect to emitter current
     D.   The change in base current with respect to gate current
 
current to a change in base current in a bipolar transistor?
     A.   Alpha
     B.   Beta
     C.   Gamma
     D.   Delta
 
bipolar transistors?
     A.   The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common
emitter configuration
     B.   The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common base
configuration
     C.   The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common base
configuration
     D.   The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common
emitter configuration
 
base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz in a
transistor?
     A.   Corner frequency
     B.   Alpha cutoff frequency
     C.   Beta cutoff frequency
     D.   Alpha rejection frequency
 
bipolar transistor?
     A.   That frequency at which the grounded base current gain has
     B.   That frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain has
     C.   That frequency at which the grounded collector current gain has
     D.   That frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has
 
a transistor?
     A.   An area of low charge density around the P-N junction
     B.   The area of maximum P-type charge
     C.   The area of maximum N-type charge
     D.   The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N-type
material
 
     A.   The collector current is at its maximum value
     B.   The collector current is at its minimum value
     C.   The transistor's Alpha is at its maximum value
     D.   The transistor's Beta is at its maximum value
 
     A.   There is no base current
     B.   The transistor is at its operating point
     C.   No current flows from emitter to collector
     D.   Maximum current flows from emitter to collector
 
 
 
 
 
 
               A    B    C    D
 
     A.   Base 1, base 2 and emitter
     B.   Gate, cathode and anode
     C.   Gate, base 1 and base 2
     D.   Gate, source and sink
 
     A.   Just below the saturation point
     B.   Just above the saturation point
     C.   At the saturation point
     D.   At 1.414 times the saturation point
 
metallic and non-metallic characteristics?
     A.   Silicon and gold
     B.   Silicon and germanium
     C.   Galena and germanium
     D.   Galena and bismuth
 
 
 
 
 
 
               A    B    C    D
 
     A.   Anode, cathode and gate
     B.   Gate, source and sink
     C.   Base, collector and emitter
     D.   Gate, base 1 and base 2
 
     A.   Conducting and nonconducting
     B.   Oscillating and quiescent
     C.   Forward conducting and reverse conducting
     D.   NPN conduction and PNP conduction
 
characteristics are similar to what other solid-state device (as measured
between its cathode and anode)?
     A.   The junction diode
     B.   The tunnel diode
     C.   The hot-carrier diode
     D.   The varactor diode
 
characteristics similar to a forward-biased silicon rectifier?
     A.   During a switching transition
     B.   When it is used as a detector
     C.   When it is gated "off"
     D.   When it is gated "on"
 
 
 
 
 
 
               A    B    C    D
 
SCRs in parallel with a common gate terminal?
     A.   TRIAC
     B.   Bilateral SCR
     C.   Unijunction transistor
     D.   Field effect transistor
 
     A.   Emitter, base 1 and base 2
     B.   Gate, anode 1 and anode 2
     C.   Base, emitter and collector
     D.   Gate, source and sink
 
 
 
 
 
 
               A    B    C    D
 
     A.   60 volts and 20 mA
     B.   5 volts and 50 mA
     C.   1.7 volts and 20 mA
     D.   0.7 volts and 60 mA
 
     A.   Reverse bias
     B.   Forward bias
     C.   Zero bias
     D.   Inductive bias
 
     A.   Low power consumption and long life
     B.   High lumens per cm per cm and low power consumption
     C.   High lumens per cm per cm and low voltage requirement
     D.   A current flows when the device is exposed to a light source
 
     A.   Yellow, blue, red, brown and green
     B.   Red, violet, yellow, white and green
     C.   Violet, blue, yellow, orange and red
     D.   Red, green, orange, white and yellow
 
 
 
 
 
 
               A    B    C    D
 
     A.   NE-1
     B.   NE-2
     C.   NE-3
     D.   NE-4
 
     A.   Approximately 67 volts
     B.   Approximately 5 volts
     C.   Approximately 5.6 volts
     D.   Approximately 110 volts
 
     A.   Approximately 110-V AC RMS
     B.   Approximately 5-V AC RMS
     C.   Approximately 5.6-V AC RMS
     D.   Approximately 48-V AC RMS
 
     A.   A neon lamp will go out in the presence of RF
     B.   A neon lamp will change color in the presence of RF
     C.   A neon lamp will light only in the presence of very low frequency
RF
     D.   A neon lamp will light in the presence of RF
 
for emission J3E?
     A.   6 kHz at -6 dB
     B.   2.1 kHz at -6 dB
     C.   500 Hz at -6 dB
     D.   15 kHz at -6 dB
 
for emission A3E?
     A.   1 kHz at -6 dB
     B.   500 Hz at -6 dB
     C.   6 kHz at -6 dB
     D.   15 kHz at -6 dB
 
     A.   A power supply filter made with crisscrossed quartz crystals
     B.   An audio filter made with 4 quartz crystals at 1-kHz intervals
     C.   A filter with infinitely wide and shallow skirts made using quartz
crystals
     D.   A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz
crystals
 
crystal lattice filters?
     A.   Splitting and tumbling
     B.   Tumbling and grinding
     C.   Etching and splitting
     D.   Etching and grinding
 
filter?
     A.   The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
     B.   The center frequency chosen for the filter
     C.   The amplitude of the RF stage preceding the filter
     D.   The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
 
SUBELEMENT 4AG -- Practical Circuits (10 questions)
 
 
     A.   A regulator that has a ramp voltage as its output
     B.   A regulator in which the pass transistor switches from the "off"
     C.   A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with
the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions
     D.   A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied
n direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
 
     A.   A regulator in which the conduction of a control element is varied
n direct proportion to the line voltage or load current
     B.   A regulator that provides more than one output voltage
     C.   A regulator in which the control device is switched on or off, with
the duty cycle proportional to the line or load conditions
     D.   A regulator that gives a ramp voltage as its output
 
voltage regulator?
     A.   A Zener diode
     B.   A tunnel diode
     C.   An SCR
     D.   A varactor diode
 
efficient utilization of the primary power source?
     A.   A constant current source
     B.   A series regulator
     C.   A shunt regulator
     D.   A shunt current source
 
load on the unregulated voltage source must be kept constant?
     A.   A constant current source
     B.   A series regulator
     C.   A shunt current source
     D.   A shunt regulator
 
voltage of the reference diode in a linear voltage regulator?
     A.   Approximately 2.0 volts
     B.   Approximately 3.0 volts
     C.   Approximately 6.0 volts
     D.   Approximately 10.0 volts
 
voltage regulator?
     A.   The feedback connection to the error amplifier is made directly to
the load
     B.   Sensing is accomplished by wireless inductive loops
     C.   The load connection is made outside the feedback loop
     D.   The error amplifier compares the input voltage to the reference
voltage
 
     A.   A regulator that supplies three voltages with variable current
     B.   A regulator that supplies three voltages at a constant current
     C.   A regulator containing three error amplifiers and sensing
transistors
     D.   A regulator containing a voltage reference, error amplifier,
 
     A.   Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and
voltage
     B.   Maximum and minimum input voltage, maximum output current and
voltage
     C.   Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output current and
maximum output voltage
     D.   Maximum and minimum input voltage, minimum output voltage and
maximum output current
 
     A.   Output for less than 180 degrees of the signal cycle
     B.   Output for the entire 360 degrees of the signal cycle
     C.   Output for more than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of the
     D.   Output for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
 
throughout the entire signal cycle and the input never goes into the cutoff
     A.   Class A
     B.   Class B
     C.   Class C
     D.   Class D
 
     A.   Output for the entire input signal cycle
     B.   Output for greater than 180 degrees and less than 360 degrees of
the input signal cycle
     C.   Output for less than 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
     D.   Output for 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
 
output essentially in 180 degree pulses?
     A.   Class A
     B.   Class B
     C.   Class C
     D.   Class D
 
     A.   Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360
     B.   Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
     C.   Output is present for the entire input signal cycle
     D.   Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal
cycle
 
amplifier?
     A.   Output is present for less than 180 degrees of the input signal
cycle
     B.   Output is present for exactly 180 degrees of the input signal cycle
     C.   Output is present for the entire input signal cycle
     D.   Output is present for more than 180 degrees but less than 360
 
beyond cutoff?
     A.   Class A
     B.   Class B
     C.   Class C
     D.   Class AB
 
     A.   Class A
     B.   Class B
     C.   Class C
     D.   Class AB
 
     A.   Class A
     B.   Class B
     C.   Class C
     D.   Class AB
 
but less than 360 degrees when driven by a sine wave signal?
     A.   Class A
     B.   Class B
     C.   Class C
     D.   Class AB
 
     A.   A network consisting entirely of four inductors
     B.   A network consisting of an inductor and a capacitor
     C.   A network used to generate a leading phase angle
     D.   A network used to generate a lagging phase angle
 
     A.   A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors
     B.   A Power Incidence network
     C.   An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground
     D.   A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors or two
nductors and one capacitor
 
     A.   A Phase Inverter Load network
     B.   A network consisting of two inductors and two capacitors
     C.   A network with only three discrete parts
     D.   A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
 
     A.   L-network
     B.   Pi-network
     C.   Inverse L-network
     D.   Pi-L-network
 
between an amplifying device and a transmission line?
     A.   M-network, pi-network and T-network
     B.   T-network, M-network and Q-network
     C.   L-network, pi-network and pi-L-network
     D.   L-network, M-network and C-network
 
     A.   Resistances in the networks substitute for resistances in the load
     B.   The matching network introduces negative resistance to cancel the
     C.   The matching network introduces transconductance to cancel the
     D.   The matching network can cancel the reactive part of an impedance
and change the value of the resistive part of an impedance
 
     A.   L-network
     B.   Pi-network
     C.   Constant-K
     D.   Constant-M
 
     A.   It matches a small impedance range
     B.   It has limited power handling capabilities
     C.   It is thermally unstable
     D.   It is prone to self resonance
 
mpedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube type
transmitter and a multiband antenna?
     A.   Greater transformation range
     B.   Higher efficiency
     C.   Lower losses
     D.   Greater harmonic suppression
 
     A.   L-network
     B.   Pi-network
     C.   Pi-L-network
     D.   Inverse-Pi network
 
     A.   High-pass, low-pass and band-pass
     B.   Inductive, capacitive and resistive
     C.   Audio, radio and capacitive
     D.   Hartley, Colpitts and Pierce
 
     A.   A filter that uses Boltzmann's constant
     B.   A filter whose velocity factor is constant over a wide range of
frequencies
     C.   A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances
s a constant for all frequencies
     D.   A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design
bandwidth
 
     A.   It has high attenuation for signals on frequencies far removed from
the passband
     B.   It can match impedances over a wide range of frequencies
     C.   It uses elliptic functions
     D.   The ratio of the cutoff frequency to the trap frequency can be
varied
 
     A.   A filter whose input impedance varies widely over the design
bandwidth
     B.   A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances
s a constant for all frequencies
     C.   A filter whose schematic shape is the letter "M"
     D.   A filter that uses a trap to attenuate undesired frequencies too
near cutoff for a constant-k filter.
 
     A.   A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances
s a constant for all frequencies
     B.   It only requires capacitors
     C.   It has a maximally flat response over its passband
     D.   It requires only inductors
 
     A.   It has a maximally flat response over its passband
     B.   It allows ripple in the passband
     C.   It only requires inductors
     D.   A filter whose product of the series- and shunt-element impedances
s a constant for all frequencies
 
constant-k filter?
     A.   When the response must be maximally flat at one frequency
     B.   When you need more attenuation at a certain frequency that is too
close to the cut-off frequency for a constant-k filter
     C.   When the number of components must be minimized
     D.   When high power levels must be filtered
 
     A.   It must have a gain of less than 1
     B.   It must be neutralized
     C.   It must have positive feedback sufficient to overcome losses
     D.   It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input
 
equipment?
     A.   Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
     B.   Colpitts, Hartley and Taft
     C.   Taft, Hartley and Pierce
     D.   Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
 
oscillator?
     A.   Through a neutralizing capacitor
     B.   Through a capacitive divider
     C.   Through link coupling
     D.   Through a tapped coil
 
oscillator?
     A.   Through a tapped coil
     B.   Through link coupling
     C.   Through a capacitive divider
     D.   Through a neutralizing capacitor
 
oscillator?
     A.   Through a tapped coil
     B.   Through link coupling
     C.   Through a capacitive divider
     D.   Through capacitive coupling
 
equipment utilizes a quartz crystal?
     A.   Negative feedback
     B.   Hartley
     C.   Colpitts
     D.   Pierce
 
     A.   Mechanical vibration of a crystal by the application of a voltage
     B.   Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a
magnetic field
     C.   The generation of electrical energy by the application of light
     D.   Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
 
     A.   It is easy to neutralize
     B.   It doesn't require an LC tank circuit
     C.   It can be tuned over a wide range
     D.   It has a high output power
 
     A.   Pierce
     B.   Colpitts
     C.   Hartley
     D.   Negative feedback
 
     A.   The frequency is a linear function of the load impedance
     B.   It can be used with or without crystal lock-in
     C.   It is stable
     D.   It has high output power
 
     A.   The squelching of a signal until a critical signal-to-noise ratio
s reached
     B.   Carrier rejection through phase nulling
     C.   A linear amplification mode
     D.   A mixing process whereby information is imposed upon a carrier
 
F3E?
     A.   The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced
modulator on the audio amplifier
     B.   The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance
modulator on the oscillator
     C.   The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a reactance
modulator on the final amplifier
     D.   The only way to produce an emission F3E signal is with a balanced
modulator on the oscillator
 
     A.   A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to
     B.   A circuit that acts as a variable resistance or capacitance to
     C.   A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to
     D.   A circuit that acts as a variable inductance or capacitance to
 
     A.   An FM modulator that produces a balanced deviation
     B.   A modulator that produces a double sideband, suppressed carrier
     C.   A modulator that produces a single sideband, suppressed carrier
     D.   A modulator that produces a full carrier signal
 
     A.   By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
     B.   By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
     C.   By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
     D.   By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
 
     A.   By feeding a phase modulated signal into a low pass filter
     B.   By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
     C.   By detuning a Hartley oscillator
     D.   By modulating the plate voltage of a class C amplifier
 
     A.   Efficiency = (RF power out) / (DC power in) X 100%
     B.   Efficiency = (RF power in) / (RF power out) X 100%
     C.   Efficiency = (RF power in) / (DC power in) X 100%
     D.   Efficiency = (DC power in) / (RF power in) X 100%
 
     A.   2000 ohms
     B.   1500 ohms
     C.   4800 ohms
     D.   480 ohms
 
     A.   679.4 ohms
     B.   60 ohms
     C.   6794 ohms
     D.   10,667 ohms
 
     A.   7692 ohms
     B.   3250 ohms
     C.   325 ohms
     D.   769.2 ohms
 
     A.   100.3 ohms
     B.   14.4 ohms
     C.   10.3 ohms
     D.   144 ohms
 
     A.   The continued motion of a radio wave through space when the
transmitter is turned off
     B.   The back and forth oscillation of electrons in an LC circuit
     C.   The use of a capacitor in a power supply to filter rectified AC
     D.   The transmission of a radio signal to a distant station by several
 
     A.   By increasing the grid drive
     B.   By feeding back an in-phase component of the output to the input
     C.   By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the output to the
nput
     D.   By feeding back an out-of-phase component of the input to the
output
 
     A.   Approximately 120
     B.   Approximately 12
     C.   Approximately 1200
     D.   Approximately 1.2
 
     A.   By tuning for maximum SWR
     B.   By tuning for maximum power output
     C.   By neutralization
     D.   By tuning the output
 
     A.   Adjust the loading capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip
the plate current with the tuning capacitor
     B.   Alternately increase the plate current with the tuning capacitor
and dip the plate current with the loading capacitor
     C.   Adjust the tuning capacitor to maximum capacitance and then dip the
     D.   Alternately increase the plate current with the loading capacitor
and dip the plate current with the tuning capacitor
 
     A.   The process of masking out the intelligence on a received carrier
to make an S-meter operational
     B.   The recovery of intelligence from the modulated RF signal
     C.   The modulation of a carrier
     D.   The mixing of noise with the received signal
 
     A.   Rectification and filtering of RF
     B.   Breakdown of the Zener voltage
     C.   Mixing with noise in the transition region of the diode
     D.   The change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
 
     A.   A detector that provides local oscillations for input to the mixer
     B.   A detector that amplifies and narrows the band-pass frequencies
     C.   A detector that uses a mixing process with a locally generated
carrier
     D.   A detector used to detect cross-modulation products
 
     A.   By a balanced modulator
     B.   By a frequency discriminator
     C.   By a product detector
     D.   By a phase splitter
 
     A.   A circuit for detecting FM signals
     B.   A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
     C.   An automatic bandswitching circuit
     D.   An FM generator
 
     A.   The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison
     B.   The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase
     C.   Distortion caused by auroral propagation
     D.   The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference
frequencies
 
circuit?
     A.   Two and four times the original frequency
     B.   The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
     C.   The original frequencies and the sum and difference frequencies
     D.   1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
 
     A.   Automatic squelching and increased selectivity
     B.   Increased selectivity and optimal tuned-circuit design
     C.   Automatic soft limiting and automatic squelching
     D.   Automatic detection in the RF amplifier and increased selectivity
 
     A.   Spurious mixer products are generated
     B.   Mixer blanking occurs
     C.   Automatic limiting occurs
     D.   A beat frequency is generated
 
     A.   As much gain as possible short of self oscillation
     B.   Sufficient gain to allow weak signals to overcome noise generated
n the first mixer stage
     C.   Sufficient gain to keep weak signals below the noise of the first
mixer stage
     D.   It depends on the amplification factor of the first IF stage
 
     A.   To prevent the sum and difference frequencies from being generated
     B.   To prevent bleed-through of the desired signal
     C.   To prevent the generation of spurious mixer products
     D.   To prevent bleed-through of the local oscillator
 
     A.   To provide most of the receiver gain
     B.   To vary the receiver image rejection by utilizing the AGC
     C.   To improve the receiver's noise figure
     D.   To develop the AGC voltage
 
     A.   A fixed-tuned pass-band amplifier
     B.   A receiver demodulator
     C.   A receiver filter
     D.   A buffer oscillator
 
frequency?
     A.   Cross-modulation distortion and interference
     B.   Interference to other services
     C.   Image rejection and selectivity
     D.   Noise figure and distortion
 
     A.   Gain
     B.   Tune out cross-modulation distortion
     C.   Dynamic response
     D.   Image rejection
 
     A.   Sensitivity
     B.   Selectivity
     C.   Noise figure performance
     D.   Squelch gain
 
     A.   Switching voltage regulator
     B.   Linear voltage regulator
     C.   Common emitter amplifier
     D.   Emitter follower amplifier
 
     A.   Load resistors
     B.   Fixed bias
     C.   Self bias
     D.   Feedback
 
     A.   Decoupling
     B.   Output coupling
     C.   Self bias
     D.   Input coupling
 
     A.   AC feedback
     B.   Input coupling
     C.   Power supply decoupling
     D.   Emitter bypass
 
     A.   Fixed bias
     B.   Emitter bypass
     C.   Output load resistor
     D.   Self bias
 
     A.   High-gain amplifier
     B.   Common-collector amplifier
     C.   Linear voltage regulator
     D.   Grounded-emitter amplifier
 
     A.   Emitter load
     B.   Fixed bias
     C.   Collector load
     D.   Voltage regulation
 
     A.   Input coupling
     B.   Output coupling
     C.   Emitter bypass
     D.   Collector bypass
 
     A.   Output coupling
     B.   Emitter bypass
     C.   Input coupling
     D.   Hum filtering
 
     A.   Switching voltage regulator
     B.   Grounded emitter amplifier
     C.   Linear voltage regulator
     D.   Emitter follower
 
     A.   Line voltage stabilization
     B.   Voltage reference
     C.   Peak clipping
     D.   Hum filtering
 
     A.   It increases the output ripple
     B.   It provides a constant load for the voltage source
     C.   It increases the current handling capability
     D.   It provides D1 with current
 
     A.   It resonates at the ripple frequency
     B.   It provides fixed bias for Q1
     C.   It decouples the output
     D.   It filters the supply voltage
 
     A.   It bypasses hum around D1
     B.   It is a brute force filter for the output
     C.   To self resonate at the hum frequency
     D.   To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
 
     A.   It prevents self-oscillation
     B.   It provides brute force filtering of the output
     C.   It provides fixed bias for Q1
     D.   It clips the peaks of the ripple
 
     A.   It provides a constant load to the voltage source
     B.   It couples hum to D1
     C.   It supplies current to D1
     D.   It bypasses hum around D1
 
     A.   It provides fixed bias for Q1
     B.   It provides fixed bias for D1
     C.   It decouples hum from D1
     D.   It provides a constant minimum load for Q1
 
to resonate in the 80 meter band?
     A.   150 picofarads
     B.   200 picofarads
     C.   100 picofarads
     D.   100 microfarads
 
to resonate in the 40 meter band?
     A.   200 microhenrys
     B.   150 microhenrys
     C.   5 millihenrys
     D.   5 microhenrys
 
to resonate in the 20 meter band?
     A.   64 picofarads
     B.   6 picofarads
     C.   12 picofarads
     D.   88 microfarads
 
to resonate in the 15 meter band?
     A.   2 microhenrys
     B.   30 microhenrys
     C.   4 microhenrys
     D.   15 microhenrys
 
to resonate in the 160 meter band?
     A.   78 picofarads
     B.   25 picofarads
     C.   405 picofarads
     D.   40.5 microfarads
 
SUBELEMENT 4AH -- Signals and Emissions (6 questions)
 
 
     A.   Facsimile
     B.   RTTY
     C.   ATV
     D.   Slow Scan TV
 
transmitter is modulated by a facsimile signal?
     A.   A3F
     B.   A3C
     C.   F3F
     D.   F3C
 
     A.   The transmission of tone-modulated telegraphy
     B.   The transmission of a pattern of printed characters designed to
form a picture
     C.   The transmission of printed pictures by electrical means
     D.   The transmission of moving pictures by electrical means
 
     A.   Voice transmission
     B.   Slow Scan TV
     C.   RTTY
     D.   Facsimile
 
s modulated by a facsimile signal?
     A.   F3C
     B.   A3C
     C.   F3F
     D.   A3F
 
     A.   RTTY
     B.   Television
     C.   SSB
     D.   Modulated CW
 
transmitter is modulated by a television signal?
     A.   F3F
     B.   A3F
     C.   A3C
     D.   F3C
 
     A.   Modulated CW
     B.   Facsimile
     C.   RTTY
     D.   Television
 
s modulated by a television signal?
     A.   A3F
     B.   A3C
     C.   F3F
     D.   F3C
 
for slow-scan television?
     A.   J3A
     B.   F3F
     C.   A3F
     D.   J3F
 
     A.   By modulating the supply voltage to a class-B amplifier
     B.   By modulating the supply voltage to a class-C amplifier
     C.   By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator
     D.   By using a balanced modulator on an oscillator
 
     A.   By using a reactance modulator on an oscillator
     B.   By varying the voltage to the varactor in an oscillator circuit
     C.   By using a phase detector, oscillator and filter in a feedback loop
     D.   By modulating the plate supply voltage to a class C amplifier
 
     A.   By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and
then removing the unwanted sideband by filtering
     B.   By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and
then removing the unwanted sideband by heterodyning
     C.   By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and
then removing the unwanted sideband by mixing
     D.   By producing a double sideband signal with a balanced modulator and
then removing the unwanted sideband by neutralization
 
     A.   The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier
frequency
     B.   The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest
audio modulating frequency
     C.   The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating
frequency
     D.   The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average
audio modulating frequency
 
from the carrier frequency divided by the maximum audio modulating frequency?
     A.   Deviation index
     B.   Modulation index
     C.   Deviation ratio
     D.   Modulation ratio
 
frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation
     A.   60
     B.   0.16
     C.   0.6
     D.   1.66
 
frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation
     A.   2.14
     B.   0.214
     C.   0.47
     D.   47
 
     A.   The processor index
     B.   The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and
the modulating frequency
     C.   The FM signal-to-noise ratio
     D.   The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest
audio modulating frequency
 
     A.   FM compressibility
     B.   Quieting index
     C.   Percentage of modulation
     D.   Modulation index
 
the modulated frequency?
     A.   The modulation index increases as the RF carrier frequency (the
modulated frequency) increases
     B.   The modulation index decreases as the RF carrier frequency (the
modulated frequency) increases
     C.   The modulation index varies with the square root of the RF carrier
frequency (the modulated frequency)
     D.   The modulation index does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
(the modulated frequency)
 
Hz either side of the carrier frequency, what is the modulation index when
the modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?
     A.   3
     B.   0.3
     C.   3000
     D.   1000
 
an instantaneous carrier deviation of 6-kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz
modulating frequency?
     A.   6000
     B.   3
     C.   2000
     D.   1/3
 
     A.   Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
     B.   A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each
other
     C.   A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at
     D.   A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each
other
 
     A.   A voltage pulse in a conductor
     B.   A current pulse in a conductor
     C.   A voltage pulse across a resistor
     D.   A fixed point in an electromagnetic wave
 
     A.   Approximately 300 million meters per second
     B.   Approximately 468 million meters per second
     C.   Approximately 186,300 feet per second
     D.   Approximately 300 million miles per second
 
electromagnetic wave?
     A.   An electric field and a current field
     B.   An electric field and a magnetic field
     C.   An electric field and a voltage field
     D.   A voltage field and a current field
 
extent?
     A.   The electromagnetic field induces currents in the insulator
     B.   The oxide on the conductor surface acts as a shield
     C.   Because of Eddy currents
     D.   The resistivity of the conductor dissipates the field
 
     A.   The electric and magnetic fields eventually become aligned
     B.   Propagation in a medium with a high refractive index
     C.   The electromagnetic wave encounters the ionosphere and returns to
ts source
     D.   Propagation of energy across a vacuum by changing electric and
magnetic fields
 
     A.   The electric field is parallel to the earth
     B.   The magnetic field is parallel to the earth
     C.   Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal
     D.   Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical
 
     A.   The electric field is bent into a circular shape
     B.   The electric field rotates
     C.   The electromagnetic wave continues to circle the earth
     D.   The electromagnetic wave has been generated by a quad antenna
 
     A.   Circular
     B.   Horizontal
     C.   Vertical
     D.   Elliptical
 
s the polarization of the electromagnetic wave?
     A.   Circular
     B.   Horizontal
     C.   Elliptical
     D.   Vertical
 
     A.   Horizontal
     B.   Circular
     C.   Elliptical
     D.   Vertical
 
s the polarization of the electromagnetic wave?
     A.   Vertical
     B.   Horizontal
     C.   Circular
     D.   Elliptical
 
     A.   A constant-voltage, varying-current wave
     B.   A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by
a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed
     C.   A wave following the laws of the trigonometric tangent function
     D.   A wave whose polarity changes in a random manner
 
cycle?
     A.   180 times
     B.   4 times
     C.   2 times
     D.   360 times
 
     A.   90 degrees
     B.   270 degrees
     C.   180 degrees
     D.   360 degrees
 
     A.   The time required to complete one cycle
     B.   The number of degrees in one cycle
     C.   The number of zero crossings in one cycle
     D.   The amplitude of the wave
 
     A.   A wave with only 300 degrees in one cycle
     B.   A wave which abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage
levels and which remains an equal time at each level
     C.   A wave that makes four zero crossings per cycle
     D.   A wave in which the positive and negative excursions occupy unequal
 
voltage levels and which remains an equal time at each level?
     A.   A sine wave
     B.   A cosine wave
     C.   A square wave
     D.   A rectangular wave
 
     A.   0.707 times the fundamental frequency
     B.   The fundamental frequency and all odd and even harmonics
     C.   The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics
     D.   The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics
 
and all the odd harmonics?
     A.   Square wave
     B.   Sine wave
     C.   Cosine wave
     D.   Tangent wave
 
     A.   A wave that alternates between two values and spends an equal time
at each level
     B.   A wave with a straight line rise time faster than the fall time (or
vice versa)
     C.   A wave that produces a phase angle tangent to the unit circle
     D.   A wave whose amplitude at any given instant can be represented by
a point on a wheel rotating at a uniform speed
 
than the fall time (or vice versa)?
     A.   A cosine wave
     B.   A square wave
     C.   A sawtooth wave
     D.   A sine wave
 
     A.   The fundamental frequency and all prime harmonics
     B.   The fundamental frequency and all even harmonics
     C.   The fundamental frequency and all odd harmonics
     D.   The fundamental frequency and all harmonics
 
and all the harmonics?
     A.   A sawtooth wave
     B.   A square wave
     C.   A sine wave
     D.   A cosine wave
 
     A.   The value of an AC voltage found by squaring the average value of
the peak AC voltage
     B.   The value of a DC voltage that would cause the same heating effect
n a given resistor as a peak AC voltage
     C.   The value of an AC voltage that would cause the same heating effect
n a given resistor as a DC voltage of the same value
     D.   The value of an AC voltage found by taking the square root of the
average AC value
 
     A.   Cosine voltage
     B.   Power factor
     C.   Root mean square
     D.   Average voltage
 
a complex waveform?
     A.   By using a grid dip meter
     B.   By measuring the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
     C.   By using an absorption wavemeter
     D.   By measuring the heating effect in a known resistor
 
     A.   117-VAC
     B.   331-VAC
     C.   82.7-VAC
     D.   165.5-VAC
 
     A.   234 volts
     B.   165.5 volts
     C.   117 volts
     D.   331 volts
 
outlet?
     A.   234 volts
     B.   117 volts
     C.   331 volts
     D.   165.5 volts
 
     A.   233-VAC
     B.   330-VAC
     C.   58.3-VAC
     D.   117-VAC
 
     A.   117-VAC
     B.   165-VAC
     C.   234-VAC
     D.   300-VAC
 
     A.   Approximately 1.0 to 1
     B.   Approximately 25 to 1
     C.   Approximately 2.5 to 1
     D.   Approximately 100 to 1
 
     A.   The frequency of the modulating signal
     B.   The degree of carrier suppression
     C.   The speech characteristics
     D.   The amplifier power
 
     A.   Approximately 900 watts
     B.   Approximately 1765 watts
     C.   Approximately 2500 watts
     D.   Approximately 3000 watts
 
     A.   Approximately 850 watts
     B.   Approximately 1250 watts
     C.   Approximately 1667 watts
     D.   Approximately 2000 watts
 
     A.   Approximately 250 watts
     B.   Approximately 600 watts
     C.   Approximately 800 watts
     D.   Approximately 1000 watts
 
     A.   In the detector
     B.   Man-made noise
     C.   In the receiver front end
     D.   In the atmosphere
 
     A.   In the receiver front end
     B.   Man-made noise
     C.   In the atmosphere
     D.   In the ionosphere
 
     A.   In the audio amplifier
     B.   In the receiver front end
     C.   In the ionosphere
     D.   Man-made noise
 
     A.   In the atmosphere
     B.   In the ionosphere
     C.   In the receiver front end
     D.   Man-made noise
 
SUBELEMENT 4AI -- Antennas & Feedlines (5 questions)
 
 
     A.   The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an
antenna to that of another antenna
     B.   The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in
the back direction
     C.   The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared
to the output power of the transmitter
     D.   The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses
(including any phasing lines present)
 
one antenna to that of another real or theoretical antenna?
     A.   Effective radiated power
     B.   Antenna gain
     C.   Conversion gain
     D.   Peak effective power
 
     A.   Antenna length divided by the number of elements
     B.   The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to
     C.   The angle between the half-power radiation points
     D.   The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends
of the elements
 
     A.   Note the two points where the signal strength of the antenna is
     B.   Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power
lobes from the front and rear of the antenna
     C.   Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and
measure the angle between the lines
     D.   Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power
lobes from the front and side of the antenna
 
     A.   An antenna for rejecting interfering signals
     B.   A highly sensitive antenna with maximum gain in all directions
     C.   An antenna capable of being used on more than one band because of
the presence of parallel LC networks
     D.   An antenna with a large capture area
 
     A.   It has high directivity in the high-frequency amateur bands
     B.   It has high gain
     C.   It minimizes harmonic radiation
     D.   It may be used for multiband operation
 
     A.   It will radiate harmonics
     B.   It can only be used for single band operation
     C.   It is too sharply directional at the lower amateur frequencies
     D.   It must be neutralized
 
     A.   Beamwidth may be controlled by non-linear impedances
     B.   The traps form a high impedance to isolate parts of the antenna
     C.   The effective radiated power can be increased if the space around
the antenna "sees" a high impedance
     D.   The traps increase the antenna gain
 
     A.   An element polarized 90 degrees opposite the driven element
     B.   An element dependent on the antenna structure for support
     C.   An element that receives its excitation from mutual coupling rather
than from a transmission line
     D.   A transmission line that radiates radio-frequency energy
 
     A.   By the RF current received from a connected transmission line
     B.   By interacting with the earth's magnetic field
     C.   By altering the phase of the current on the driven element
     D.   By currents induced into the element from a surrounding electric
field
 
antenna compare with that of the driven element?
     A.   It is about 5% longer
     B.   It is about 5% shorter
     C.   It is twice as long
     D.   It is one-half as long
 
antenna compare with that of the driven element?
     A.   It is about 5% longer
     B.   It is about 5% shorter
     C.   It is one-half as long
     D.   It is twice as long
 
     A.   Losses in the antenna elements and feed line
     B.   The specific impedance of the antenna
     C.   An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of
     D.   The resistance in the trap coils to received signals
 
the same amount of energy as that radiated from an antenna?
     A.   Space resistance
     B.   Loss resistance
     C.   Transmission line loss
     D.   Radiation resistance
 
     A.   Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to match
mpedances for maximum power transfer
     B.   Knowing the radiation resistance makes it possible to measure the
near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
     C.   The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-side
     D.   The value of the radiation resistance represents the front-to-back
 
antenna?
     A.   Transmission line length and height of antenna
     B.   The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects and the
length/diameter ratio of the conductors
     C.   It is a constant for all antennas since it is a physical constant
     D.   Sunspot activity and the time of day
 
     A.   Always the rearmost element
     B.   Always the forwardmost element
     C.   The element fed by the transmission line
     D.   The element connected to the rotator
 
antenna?
     A.   1/4 wavelength
     B.   1/2 wavelength
     C.   3/4 wavelength
     D.   1 wavelength
 
transmitter through a transmission line?
     A.   Driven element
     B.   Director element
     C.   Reflector element
     D.   Parasitic element
 
     A.   Efficiency = (radiation resistance) / (transmission resistance) X
     B.   Efficiency = (radiation resistance) / (total resistance) X 100%
     C.   Efficiency = (total resistance) / (radiation resistance) X 100%
     D.   Efficiency = (effective radiated power) / (transmitter output) X
 
to the total resistance of the system?
     A.   Effective radiated power
     B.   Radiation conversion loss
     C.   Antenna efficiency
     D.   Beamwidth
 
     A.   Radiation resistance plus space impedance
     B.   Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
     C.   Transmission line resistance plus radiation resistance
     D.   Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
 
comparable to that of a half-wave antenna?
     A.   By installing a good ground radial system
     B.   By isolating the coax shield from ground
     C.   By shortening the vertical
     D.   By lengthening the vertical
 
     A.   Because it is non-resonant
     B.   Because the conductor resistance is low compared to the radiation
     C.   Because earth-induced currents add to its radiated power
     D.   Because it has less corona from the element ends than other types
of antennas
 
     A.   A dipole that is one-quarter wavelength long
     B.   A ground plane antenna
     C.   A dipole whose ends are connected by another one-half wavelength
     D.   A fictional antenna used in theoretical discussions to replace the
 
a simple dipole antenna?
     A.   It is 0.707 times the simple dipole bandwidth
     B.   It is essentially the same
     C.   It is less than 50% that of a simple dipole
     D.   It is greater
 
antenna?
     A.   300 ohms
     B.   72 ohms
     C.   50 ohms
     D.   450 ohms
 
     A.   The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the
terminating impedance
     B.   The index of shielding for coaxial cable
     C.   The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the
velocity of light in a vacuum
     D.   The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the
velocity of light in a vacuum
 
travels through a line to the speed of light in a vacuum?
     A.   Velocity factor
     B.   Characteristic impedance
     C.   Surge impedance
     D.   Standing wave ratio
 
     A.   2.70
     B.   0.66
     C.   0.30
     D.   0.10
 
     A.   The termination impedance
     B.   The line length
     C.   Dielectrics in the line
     D.   The center conductor resistivity
 
than its electrical length?
     A.   Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
     B.   RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable
     C.   The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
     D.   The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
 
     A.   20 meters
     B.   3.55 meters
     C.   2.51 meters
     D.   0.25 meters
 
     A.   10.5 meters
     B.   6.88 meters
     C.   24 meters
     D.   50 meters
 
electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? (assume a velocity factor
of 0.82.)
     A.   15 meters
     B.   24.3 meters
     C.   8.7 meters
     D.   70.8 meters
 
MHz? (assume a velocity factor of 0.80.)
     A.   Electrical length times 0.8
     B.   Electrical length divided by 0.8
     C.   80 meters
     D.   160 meters
 
     A.   At the ends
     B.   At the feed points
     C.   Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end
     D.   One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end
 
     A.   At the ends
     B.   At the feed point
     C.   Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end
     D.   One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end
 
exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?
     A.   Equal voltage and current
     B.   Minimum voltage and maximum current
     C.   Maximum voltage and minimum current
     D.   Minimum voltage and minimum current
 
exist compared to the remainder of the antenna?
     A.   Equal voltage and current
     B.   Maximum voltage and minimum current
     C.   Minimum voltage and minimum current
     D.   Minimum voltage and maximum current
 
than that for an inductance placed further up the whip?
     A.   The capacitance to ground is less farther away from the base
     B.   The capacitance to ground is greater farther away from the base
     C.   The current is greater at the top
     D.   The voltage is less at the top
 
as the frequency of operation is lowered?
     A.   The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance decreases
     B.   The resistance decreases and the capacitive reactance increases
     C.   The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance decreases
     D.   The resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
 
     A.   To swamp out harmonics
     B.   To maximize losses
     C.   To minimize losses
     D.   To minimize the Q
 
     A.   To improve reception
     B.   To lower the losses
     C.   To lower the Q
     D.   To tune out the capacitive reactance
 
to minimize losses and produce the most effective performance?
     A.   Near the center of the vertical radiator
     B.   As low as possible on the vertical radiator
     C.   As close to the transmitter as possible
     D.   At a voltage node
 
the use of loading coils?
     A.   It is increased
     B.   It is decreased
     C.   No change occurs
     D.   It becomes flat
 
     A.   They are very broad banded
     B.   They have high gain in all azimuthal directions
     C.   They are the most efficient radiators
     D.   They require no calculations
 
antenna?
     A.   Lower Q
     B.   Greater structural strength
     C.   Higher losses
     D.   Improved radiation efficiency
 
 
 
 
                     QUESTION POOL SUPPLEMENT
 
                            ELEMENT 4A     
 
    B.  Only if the station is a repeater or space station
 
What is a closed repeater?
    A.  A repeater containing control circuitry that limits      
  repeater access to certain users
 
    D.  Transmission of communications point-to-point within a   
     system of cooperating amateur stations.
 
    C  Passing of international third-party communications
 
    D.  The use of a control operator who indirectly manipulates
        the operating adjustments in the station through a control
        link
{97.213 says "An amateur station may be remotely controlled where:
  (B)  Provisions are incorporated to limit transmission by the 
       station to a period of no more than 3 minutes in the event
       of malfunction in the control link."
 
We would have the same meaning if it had said "Capability is
there is no need to shut down the repeater (ever) just because the
control link goes on the blink.  The only requirement is that we
be able to do so - and the three-minute timer provides this
capability.  My desk-top dictionary at the office defines
"incorporate" as "1. to combine or join with something already
formed; make part of another thing; include; embody  2.  to bring
together into a single whole; merge"   I consider this question to
 
    D  Model craft
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
What additional identification, if any, beyond station call sign
s required for amateur repeater stations?
    (A)   The single letter "R" must be added after the station  
          call sign
    (B).  No additional identification is required
    (C)   The three-letter designator of the nearest city's airport
          must be added after the station call sign 
    (D)   The entire word "repeater" or "R" must be added after the
          station call sign
 
Without special FCC approval, what is the maximum height above
    (A)   46 m (150 feet)
    (B).  61 m (200 feet)
    (C)   76 m (250 feet)
    (C)   91 m (300 feet)
 
What must an amateur licensee do to request approval to place an
antenna structure higher than the limits specified in Part 97? {I'm
trying to avoid mentioning specific paragraphs in Part 97 - another
change could invalidate us much easier}
    (A).  Notify the FAA on FAA Form 7460-1 and the FCC on FCC Form
          854
    (B)   Submit an FCC Form 610 marked to indicate a significant
          environmental impact along with an attached            
          [B+]environmental assessment[B-] (EA) statement
    (C)   Submit a detailed engineering study and reasonable    
          justification for the height of the antenna to the EIC 
          of the regional FCC Field Facility
    (D)   Obtain written approval from the state and/or local    
          regulatory body 
 
Which of the following types of amateur communication is [B+]not
[B-] a "prohibited transmission" as defined in part 97?
    (A)   Transmission of messages into a disaster area for hire
          or for material compensation
    (B).  Transmissions ensuring safety on a highway, such as    
          calling a commercial tow truck service
    (C)   Transmission of communications that facilitate the     
          regular business or commercial affairs of any party
    (D)   Transmission of communications concerning moving,      
          supplying and quartering participants in a charity event 
          as long as the sponsoring charity is the principal     
          beneficiary of such communications, not the public
 
 
 
 
 
Under what conditions, if any, may communications be transmitted
to a commercial business by an amateur station?
    (D). When the immediate safety of human life or immediate    
         protection of property is involved
 
    (A).  The volunteer examiners or a qualified supplier
 
    (C).  The volunteer examiners or a qualified supplier
 
    (A)  They may prepare the examination from material contained
         in the ARRL handbook or obtain a question set from the FCC
    (D)  They must prepare the examination from material contained
         in a question pool maintained by the FCC in Washington
    (C)  They must prepare the examination from material contained
         in a question pool maintained by the local FCC field    
         office
    (D). They may prepare the examination from a common question
         pool maintained by the VEC's or obtain a question set from
         a supplier
 
Within how many days after the administration of a successful
Novice examination must the examiners submit the application to the
FCC?
    (A)  Within one week of the administration date
    (B). Within 10 days of the administration date
    (C)  Within 5 days of the administration date
    (D)  Within 30 days of the administration date
 
Where must the completed Form 610 be submitted after the
administration of a successful Novice examination?
    (A)  To the nearest FCC Field Office
    (B)  To the FCC in Washington, DC
    (C). To the FCC in Gettysburg, PA
    (D)  To any VEC
 
    (A)  A minimum of 19 correct answers
    (B). A minimum of 22 correct answers
    (C)  A minimum of 21 correct answers
    (D)  A minimum of 24 correct answers
 
How many questions must an Element 2 written examination contain?
    (A)  25
    (B)  20
    (C)  40
    (D). 30
 
 
How can a double-sideband phone signal be produced?


AD: